Fosgate wrote:
Wayne Stollings wrote:
Fosgate wrote:
Satisfying demand doesn't benefit those who's demand is satisfied?
The criteria was supposed to be for the benefit of the society not the individual.
Those...plural.
Which ones? There seem to be several options. Only income or the various modified versions.
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Those who seek murders for hire can have their consumeristic wishes granted, but it does not benefit society when they do.
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Which has nothing to do with whether those wants are beneficial to the society. There is a lot of money to be made in illegal drugs such as meth, but there is no benefit to the society for the manufacture, sale, or use of an addictive drug regardless of the "wants" of those addicted to it.
True on both counts. However, like your scenario involving untaxable income...
...show the significant flaws in this concept.
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So just how valuable is Bernie Madoff in your opinion? His income was exceptional and there were quite a few willing to pay a high price for his services for a long time.
Hard to say. It would depend on where he fell on that subjective curve. In the end, all it boils down to is what class gets the most bang for their buck with their votes.
That is the problem with the current situation in that money is buying the election process for the sole benefit of those with money now and not society as a whole. This concept would only serve to worsen the situation.
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Inefficiencies? How is teaching the youth or saving lives inefficient?
For one, in the form of product--graduation rates.
Teaching is but one factor in the graduation rates and the rates do not show a level of effciency of teaching as a whole.
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Secondly, the manner in which it is administered--student/teach ratios.
That is a function of investment not teaching. No matter how you try to define teaching if you only provide funds to hire 1 teacher per 40 students there is no way teaching by itself can convert that to 1 teacher per 20 students.
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Third, capability of the teachers themselves.
How are they all inefficient?
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If the lack of "lean processing" is the cause for low pay in these fields, why are the pay scales still so low after all of the years without the increased processing overhead?
Overprocessing wasn't as big a waste as others, apparently.
Which still leaves no explanation for the low pay scales compared to value to society.
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But your criteria of income is purely subjective in whether one applies oneself to the fullest.
No, it's perfectly objective.
It cannot be as the value is based on subjective criteria. The income is not the value to society but you choose it to be modified by other subjective means.
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Of course it's a factor, but folks are compensated for the value of their work regardless of how much they apply themselves.
But NOT in relation to the value to society just in relation to what some are willing to pay and others will accept partly for the love of the type of work.
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The income ONLY shows to what extent one seeks monetary compensation.
No, it reflects the value of one's contribution toward meeting demand.
Both of which have nothing to do with the value to the society since demand or seeking compensation are unrelated to society and the value to it.
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Remember there was a time when doctors treated their patients and were compensated by whatever the patient could afford. The docters were no less working to their potential than a Hollywood plastic surgeon making high six figures is now. The benefit to society was probably greater with the old doctors too.
There was less waste in the process, that's for sure. As for the benefit, well, I really can't say that our level of health is any better or worse today.
So you are saying the compensation rate does not equate to better or worse level of health, which means there is no more value to society for the increased compensation today as compared to previous times?
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The weighting appears to be purely subjective to me.
As are many laws, but they are what they are because that's what we want them to be. One can take it all the way back to the constitution if they want, but that was written by men putting their own subjective thoughts to paper all the same.
So that is a "yes" on the purely subjective aspect then?
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Whatever gauge or gauges used will be highly subjective or either highly questionable in determining who should and should not vote. Any attempt to decide whose vote should count or not has to be questionable.
Why? Because someone or some
thing says so?
No, because a LOT of someones and some very important things say so.
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But the median household income in the US for 2009 was only $50,221 so the impact would be far greater to the average houshold.
Not if they fall on the curve in such a way that maximizes their voting potential.
How can it maximize their voting potential when income is the determination? The maximization of income will be the maximization of voting potential under that criteria.
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There was 14.3% of the population below the poverty level in 2009, which is a hefty number to exclude from the input. It might skew the input towards the more wealthy view even more than we have today.
No, no exclusion of the poor.
Except when they have no reported income that is?
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Then why would income be chosen as a factor if it does not represent the quality of the vote?
It represents the weighting factor of the vote, the quality of the vote remains the same.
If a vote has more weight without that weight representing a higher quality it is only a form of discrimination based on income.
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If you want to look at it that way, quantity would be a better descriptor. Income would enhance this aspect up to a point of diminishing returns.
So essentially the more income you have, the more votes you can cast, up to the point where you max out the number of votes anyone can cast?
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So income does not reflect a benefit to society now?
Of course it would, up to a point.
So how does a drug dealer making 1 million per year benefit society more than a teacher making 40K per year exactly?
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How would that income be proved since non-taxable income is not documented on the tax forms?
Good question. I don't have all the answers, but I do have some suggestions.
It appears to be a higher level of complexity with the sole intent of preventing certain voters from being able to participate in electing officials and voicing their official opinion on issues based only on their wealth or lack thereof.
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That would also indicate those involved with very profitable illegal activities would also have similar non-taxed incomes and should be allowed to vote.
Obviously, we're not going to begin taxing profits from illegal activities.
We already do. Tax evasion is how they convicted Al Capone and there are tax stamps sold to cover income which is not reported due to the legality.
http://www.dor.state.nc.us/taxes/usub/substance.htmlAbout The Unauthorized Substances Tax
(North Carolina General Statutes 105-113.105 Through 105-113.113)
What is the unauthorized substances tax? The unauthorized substances tax is an excise tax on controlled substances (marijuana, cocaine, etc.), illicit spirituous liquor ("moonshine"), mash and illicit mixed beverages.
Who is required to pay the tax? The tax is due by any individual who possesses an unauthorized substance upon which the tax has not been paid, as evidenced by a stamp.